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Old November 9, 2001, 09:28   #1
Zizka
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Local Time: 11:23
Local Date: October 31, 2010
Join Date: Sep 2001
Location: Fantasy land
Posts: 94
Dem pesky revoltin' varmits
In the SJ chat transcript it was mentioned that the 1 military unit in a conquered city will make 1 citizen less likely to revolt. My question is: Does there have to be only 1 revolting citizen (damn marketers. LOL) to effectively cause the city to defect (ie 9 units surpressing a 10 pop conquered city) or does it have to be the majority of the citizens.

In my example if I have 9 units in pop 10 city all it would be silly if all it that was req'd one discontented citizen to kill both my army AND stage a coup.

I just went through a long wa that lasted 10 times too long because everytime conq. a city .. a couple of turns later BOING it defects!

Firaxis : wouldn't it make more sense to have cities defect after a prolonged period of disorder/rioting than just out-of the blue. On more than one occasion i have had city in the middle of my empire .. during a time of peace have a collective brain fart and defect .. despite all happy citizens .. entertainers, temple and whatnot..

Z
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